2013년 10월 31일 목요일

ISQI CTAL-TM_UK 시험문제

ISQI인증CTAL-TM_UK시험준비를 하고 계시다면ITExamDump에서 출시한ISQI인증CTAL-TM_UK덤프를 제일 먼저 추천해드리고 싶습니다. ITExamDump제품은 여러분들이 제일 간편한 방법으로 시험에서 고득점을 받을수 있도록 도와드리는 시험동반자입니다. ISQI인증CTAL-TM_UK시험패는ITExamDump제품으로 고고고!

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IT업계에 종사하는 분들은 치열한 경쟁을 많이 느낄것입니다. 치열한 경쟁속에서 자신의 위치를 보장하는 길은 더 많이 배우고 더 많이 노력하는것 뿐입니다.국제적으로 인정받은 IT인증자격증을 취득하는것이 제일 중요한 부분이 아닌가 싶기도 합니다. 다른 분이 없는 자격증을 내가 소유하고 있다는 생각만 해도 뭔가 안전감이 느껴지지 않나요? 더는 시간낭비하지 말고ITExamDump의ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_UK덤프로ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_UK시험에 도전해보세요.

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ITExamDump의 ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_UK덤프는 최근 유행인 PDF버전과 소프트웨어버전 두가지 버전으로 제공됩니다.PDF버전을 먼저 공부하고 소프트웨어번으로 PDF버전의 내용을 얼마나 기억하였는지 테스트할수 있습니다. 두 버전을 모두 구입하시면 시험에서 고득점으로 패스가능합니다.

시험 번호/코드: CTAL-TM_UK
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager (CTAL-TM_UK))
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NO.1 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.3 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

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NO.5 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.7 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A. Before the change is approved
B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements
against
targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable
the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D

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NO.7 What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service
provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: CVA
시험 이름: NACVA (Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA))
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NO.1 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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NO.2 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

NACVA   CVA   CVA   CVA덤프   CVA기출문제

NO.3 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

NACVA시험문제   CVA   CVA   CVA자료
5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

NACVA   CVA   CVA덤프   CVA   CVA

NO.4 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

NACVA인증   CVA자격증   CVA

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Motorola Solutions MSC-241 인증시험

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시험 번호/코드: MSC-241
시험 이름: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA)
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Q&A: 108 문항
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NO.1 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions자료   MSC-241   MSC-241인증   MSC-241자료   MSC-241인증

NO.2 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-241   MSC-241 dumps   MSC-241인증

NO.3 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241시험문제   MSC-241

NO.4 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

Motorola Solutions자료   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241

NO.5 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions기출문제   MSC-241   MSC-241

NO.6 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

Motorola Solutions pdf   MSC-241 pdf   MSC-241자료   MSC-241

NO.7 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions dump   MSC-241 pdf   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241최신덤프   MSC-241

NO.8 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions   MSC-241인증   MSC-241인증

NO.9 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions최신덤프   MSC-241   MSC-241

NO.10 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions시험문제   MSC-241 pdf   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241

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시험 번호/코드: S90-01A
시험 이름: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional pdf   S90-01A   S90-01A   S90-01A   S90-01A

NO.3 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional   S90-01A   S90-01A   S90-01A   S90-01A   S90-01A pdf

NO.5 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.6 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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시험 이름: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)
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NO.1 A failover system can increase ___________________and ___________________ by using
_______________ technology.?
Select the correct answer.
A.resources, usage thresholds, legacy
B.reliability, availability, clustering
C.flexibility, integrity, real-time
D.confidentiality, responsiveness, cloud
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms helps enable on-demand usage by allowing cloud
services to be configured to support higher usage thresholds automatically, and within pre-defined
parameters?
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replication
Answer: B

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NO.3 __________________ represents the ability of a cloud platform to keep track of the usage of its IT
resources by cloud consumers, and is therefore directly related to the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.Replicated usage, cloud monitor
B.Measured usage, pay-for-use monitor
C.Agent usage, on-premise monitor
D.None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A virtual server is a form of ____________________ software that emulates a(n)
____________________ computer.
Select the correct answer.
A.virtual monitoring, on-premise
B.virtual monitoring, cloud-based
C.virtualization, physical
D.virtualization, logical
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about the failover system mechanism?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A.A failover system can only be used for legacy batch programs.
B.A failover system cannot span over more than one geographical region.
C.A failover system can be used to make redundant implementations of the same cloud service.
D.A failover system can be used to avoid introducing cloud services as single points of failure.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which of the following IT resources are examples of multi-device brokers?
Select the correct answer.
A.An XML gateway that performs runtime transformation of messaging protocols.
B.A cloud storage gateway that performs runtime transformation of cloud storage device protocols.
C.A middleware product that performs runtime transformation of XML schemas.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A cloud service can be hosted by a physical server or a virtual server. When using the failover system
mechanism, the same cloud service cannot be hosted by more than one physical server.
Select the correct answer.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.8 A ___________________ is an IT resource that contains mapping logic capable of performing runtime
transformation to enable communication between a cloud service and different types of cloud service
consumers.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: D

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NO.9 A hypervisor can independently manage and monitor the virtualization of multiple virtual servers, and is
therefore associated with the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is an IT resource that can be provided in a ready-made environment?
Select the correct answer.
A.database
B.development tool
C.virtual server
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A ____________________ is a pre-defined cloud-based platform comprised of a set of already installed
IT resources that can be used and customized by a cloud consumer.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms can exist as a service agent that monitors and
keeps track of communication between cloud service consumers and cloud services for load balancing
purposes?
Select the correct answer.
A.multi-device broker
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.resource replicator
D.automated scaling listener
Answer: D

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NO.13 A ___________________ is a mechanism used to temporarily persist certain types of data as an
alternative to caching the data in memory.
Select the correct answer.
A.resource replicator
B.state management database
C.failover system
D.multi-device broker
Answer: B

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NO.14 Assuming a cloud service is configured to support on-demand usage, which of the following cloud
computing mechanisms would the cloud provider need to use in order to keep track of what to charge
cloud consumers?
Select the correct answer.
A.on-demand usage listener
B.multi-device broker
C.resource billing replicator
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The ____________________ is a service agent that can measure the usage of a cloud-based IT
resource by a cloud consumer for billing purposes.
Select the correct answer.
A.automated scaling listener
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replicator
Answer: B

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NO.1 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

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NO.2 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.3 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.6 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.7 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.9 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: L50-502
시험 이름: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
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NO.1 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

LSI   L50-502   L50-502덤프   L50-502   L50-502자격증

NO.2 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

LSI   L50-502   L50-502자격증   L50-502   L50-502 pdf

NO.3 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

LSI   L50-502   L50-502   L50-502   L50-502덤프

NO.4 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

LSI pdf   L50-502기출문제   L50-502자료

NO.5 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

LSI   L50-502   L50-502자격증   L50-502

NO.6 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

LSI   L50-502   L50-502자격증

NO.7 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

LSI pdf   L50-502   L50-502   L50-502자격증

NO.9 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

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NO.11 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

LSI   L50-502기출문제   L50-502자료   L50-502

NO.12 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

LSI   L50-502   L50-502

NO.14 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

LSI   L50-502인증   L50-502기출문제   L50-502기출문제   L50-502

NO.15 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

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시험 이름: GIAC (GIAC Certified Firewall Analyst)
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NO.1 Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to perform various security functions in the network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Skinny Client Control Protocol
B. Authentication Header
C. Encapsulating Security Payload
D. Internet Key Exchange
Answer: B,C,D

GIAC   GCFW자격증   GCFW   GCFW덤프

NO.2 Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDS) monitors network traffic and compares it
against an established baseline?
A. Network-based
B. File-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based
Answer: D

GIAC   GCFW덤프   GCFW

NO.3 Which of the following proxy servers is placed anonymously between the client and remote server and
handles all of the traffic from the client?
A. Web proxy server
B. Open proxy server
C. Forced proxy server
D. Caching proxy server
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following commands configures a router to encrypt all passwords entered after the
command has been executed, as well as all passwords already on the running configuration?
A. no service password-encryption
B. enable password-encryption
C. no enable password-encryption
D. service password-encryption
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following are the countermeasures against a man-in-the-middle attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using Secret keys for authentication.
B. Using public key infrastructure authentication.
C. Using Off-channel verification.
D. Using basic authentication.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following components are usually found in an Intrusion detection system (IDS).?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Firewall
B. Console
C. Gateway
D. Modem
E. Sensor
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which of the following is the default port for POP3?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following limits the number of packets seen by tcpdump?
A. BPF-based filter
B. Recipient filtering
C. Sender filtering
D. IFilters
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems consists of an agent on a host that identifies
intrusions by analyzing system calls, application logs, file-system modifications (binaries, password files,
capability/acl databases) and other host activities and state?
A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. APIDS
D. PIDS
Answer: A

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NO.10 WinDump, tcpdump, and Wireshark specify which fields of information libpcap should record.
Which of the following filters do they use in order to accomplish the task?
A. Berkeley Packet Filter
B. IM filter
C. Web filter
D. FIR filter
Answer: A

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NO.11 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP network. You have
been assigned a task to configure security mechanisms for the network of the company. You have
decided to configure a packet filtering firewall. Which of the following may be the reasons that made you
choose a packet filtering firewall as a security mechanism?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It makes security transparent to end-users which provide easy use of the client application s.
B. It prevents application-layer attacks.
C. It is easy to install packet filtering firewalls in comparison to the other network security sol utions.
D. It easily matches most of the fields in Layer 3 packets and Layer 4 segment headers, and thus,
provides a lot of flexibility in implementing security policies.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following devices is used to identify out-of-date software versions, applicable patches,
system upgrades, etc?
A. Retinal scanner
B. Fingerprint reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: D

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NO.13 Choose the best explanation for the resulting error when entering the command below.
A. The command is attempting to create a standard access list with extended access list param eters.
B. The ACL commands should be entered from the (config-router) configuration mode.
C. The wildcard mask is not provided for the source and destination addresses.
D. The port number given does not correspond with the proper transport protocol.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following can be monitored by using the host intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Computer performance
B. File system integrity
C. Storage space on computers
D. System files
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true about an IDP rule base notification?
A. It can be defined as reusable logical entities that the user can apply to the rules.
B. When an action is performed, a notification defines how to log information.
C. It is used to specify the type of network traffic that has to be monitored for attacks.
D. It directs an IDP to drop or close the connection.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following number ranges is used for the IP Standard ACL?
A. 100-199
B. 1000-1099
C. 600-699
D. 1-99
Answer: D

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NO.18 A scenario involves a pool of users with private IP addresses who need to access the Internet;
however, the company has a limited number of IP addresses and needs to ensure users occupy only one
public IP address.
Which technology is used to allow a pool of users to share one global IP address for Internet access?
A. Port Address Translation
B. Per-user Address Translation
C. Pool Address Translation
D. Private Address Translation
Answer: A

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NO.19 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning or ARP Poison Routing
(APR), is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network. ARP spoofing may allow an
attacker to sniff data frames on a local area network (LAN), modify the traffic, or stop the traffic altogether.
The principle of ARP spoofing is to send fake ARP messages to an Ethernet LAN.
What steps can be used as a countermeasure of ARP spoofing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using ARP Guard utility
B. Using smash guard utility
C. Using static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
D. Using ARP watch utility
E. Using IDS Sensors to check continually for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.20 A packet filtering firewall inspects each packet passing through the network and accepts or rejects it
based on user-defined rules. Based on which of the following information are these rules set to filter the
packets?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Layer 4 protocol information
B. Actual data in the packet
C. Interface of sent or received traffic
D. Source and destination Layer 3 address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.21 Which of the following ICMPv6 neighbor discovery messages is sent by hosts to request an immediate
router advertisement, instead of waiting for the next scheduled advertisement?
A. Router Advertisement
B. Neighbor Advertisement
C. Router Solicitation
D. Neighbor Solicitation
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: C

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NO.23 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except the ports that must be used. He does need to have
port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the Internet. Adam is still
worried about the programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block ICMP type 3 messages
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
D. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
Answer: A

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NO.24 You work as a Network Architect for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a corporate LAN network. You
will have to perform the following tasks:
l Limit events that occur from security threats such as viruses, worms, and spyware.
l Restrict access to the network based on identity or security posture.
Which of the following services will you deploy in the network to accomplish the tasks?
A. NetFlow
B. Protocol-Independent Multicast
C. Network Admission Control
D. Firewall Service Module
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following IDs is used to reassemble the fragments of a datagram at the destination point?
A. IP identification number
B. SSID
C. MAK ID
D. IP address
Answer: A

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NO.26 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project for testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to corrupt an IDS signature database so that performing attacks on
the server is made easy and he can observe the flaws in the We-are-secure server. To perform his task,
he first of all sends a virus that continuously changes its signature to avoid detection from IDS. Since the
new signature of the virus does not match the old signature, which is entered in the IDS signature
database, IDS becomes unable to point out the malicious virus. Which of the following IDS evasion
attacks is John performing?
A. Session splicing attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Polymorphic shell code attack
D. Insertion attack
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
B. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
C. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
D. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
Answer: B,C

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NO.28 Which of the following are the reasons that network administrators use Access Control Lists?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Encrypting data to be routed
B. Removing weak user password
C. Controlling VTY access into a router
D. Filtering traffic as it passes through a router
Answer: C,D

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NO.29 You work as a Security Manger for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You want to scroll real-time network traffic to a command console in a readable format. Which of the
following command line utilities will you use to accomplish the task?
A. WinPcap
B. WinDump
C. iptables
D. libpcap
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following algorithms is used as a default algorithm for ESP extension header in IPv6?
A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) Mode
B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) Mode
C. Propagating Cipher Block Chaining (PCBC) Mode
D. Cipher Feedback (CFB) Mode
Answer: B

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