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시험 번호/코드: M70-101
시험 이름: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Exam)
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NO.1 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which one of the following EAV attribute types may be used for layered navigation in native Magento?
A. varchar
B. enum
C. option
D. union
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which one of the following classes must you extend in order to implement a custom indexer?
A. Mage_Eav_Model_Indexer_Abstract
B. Mage_Core_Model_lndexer_Abstract
C. Mage_Index_Model_Entity_Indexer_Abstract
D. Mage_Index_Model_Indexer_Abstract
Answer: D

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NO.4 The final price for the product on the product view page is__________.
A. taken from the catalog_product_index_price table
B. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_idx table
C. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_f inal_idx table
D. calculated on-the-fly on php-level
E. pre-calculated in the products price attribute
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which table is used for calculating a new increment ID for an order?
A. sales_flat_order_increment
B. eav_entity_store
C. core_increment
D. core_config_data
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which method is called on a shipping carrier model to fetch a list of all available shipping methods,
along with the rates associated with them, for a quote address?
A. collectShippingRates()
B. getAllowedMethodsO
C. getShippingRates ()
D. getAvailableRates()
E. collectRates()
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following options would cause a poll/poll collection to load all entities that have been
posted during April, 2011?
A. $collection->addAttributeToFilter(*date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => 2011-04-30') );
B. $collection->addFieldToFilter('date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
C. $collection->addPostDateFilter('2011-04-01', '2011-04-30');
D. $collection->addFieldToSelect(('date_posted', Array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
Answer: B

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NO.8 How is the sort order in which total models collect their values specified?
A. The sort order is specified in the admin configuration under Sales > "Checkout Totals Sort Order".
B. The sort order is specified in the system configuration under global/sales/quote/totals/ [total_code] with
<before> and <after> nodes.
C. The sort order is defined by the module loading order as specified by the children of the modules/
[module_name]/depends configuration node.
D. The sort order is specified by the collect method in each total model.
Answer: A

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NO.9 For an attribute to be loaded on a catalog/product object, which two of the following conditions must be
satisfied? (Choose two)
A. The eav_attribute table must contain a row defining the attribute's properties and its entity type.
B. The attribute must have a backend model configured in the XML config.
C. The attribute must be part of the attribute set pertaining to the object being loaded.
D. There must be a record of the attribute on the catalog_product_super_atti:ibute table.
E. There must be a column added to the catalog_product_entity table.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 What class does an adminhtml grid directly extend.?
A. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget
B. Varien_Data_Grid
C. Varien_Data_Widget
D. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Template
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are creating a custom CMS module named Achme_Cms. Which one of the following is the correct
XML required to override a controller from the Mage_Cms module in your Achme_Cms module?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have a product collection and want to add a filter to get all products whose name starts with Test or
whose price is 0.00.
Which of the following statements would add that OR condition?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _isAllowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Which one of the following API methods exists in Magento?
A. catalog_category.save
B. catalog_product, items
C. catalog_product_attribute_set.update
D. catalog_product.info
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two EAV attribute frontend_input types make use of source models? (Choose two)
A. text
B. textarea
C. select
D. multiselect
E. date
F. gallery
Answer: C,D

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시험 번호/코드: CTAL-TM-001
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
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NO.1 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test
process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are
developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them
toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing
inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.

NO.2 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.3 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.5 Topic 1, Scenario 1 "Medical Domain"
You are working as a test manager in the medical domain leading a team of system testers. You are
currently working on a major release of the product which gives customers many new features and
resolves a number of problem reports from previous releases.
1.You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.6 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.7 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
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NO.1 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical
monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to
see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned
scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test
specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to
be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.4 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support.
Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.5 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for
the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area,
testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on
reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.8 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.9 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to
provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an
influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.10 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: CTAL-TA_Syll2012
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Analyst (Syllabus 2012))
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NO.1 Working together with the test manager during test planning, which of the following activities
is NOT expected to be performed by the test analyst?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Review the test estimates of the test manager
B. Review the test plan for non-functional testing
C. Organize adequate test resources
D. Being involved in risk management sessions
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a type of testing that someone in the role of a test analyst, working
with the test manager, should typically consider and plan for?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Security testing
B. Reliability testing
C. Accessibility testing
D. Performance testing
Answer: C

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NO.3 As a test analyst you are gathering data to support accurate metrics. Which of the following
metrics would be MOST appropriate to use to monitor product quality?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Defects found versus defects expected
B. Tests run and tests passed
C. Test resources spent versus budget
D. Compliance to entry criteria
E. Product risks outstanding and new risks introduced
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 Which of the following criteria on test progress would enable the business to determine a
likely 'go live' date?
(i) Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed
(ii) Number of high priority defects outstanding
(iii) The test team's timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing
(iv) Number of tests passed and number failed
(v) Number of defects found in each development area
(vi) The rate at which defects are being found
[K2] 1 credit
A. (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (i), (ii), (vi)
D. (iv), (v), (vi)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to when the test analyst should
become involved during different lifecycle models?
[K2] 1 credit
A. In a sequential V-model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with coding
B. In Agile projects the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently with coding
C. In a sequential model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with software design
D. In an embedded iterative model the test analyst should expect to be involved in the standard
planning and design aspects
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the MOST important reason why test conditions should be understandable by
stakeholders?
[K2] 1 credit
A. They should be able to review the test conditions and provide feedback to the test analyst
B. They should be able to use them as a basis for designing test cases
C. They should be able to use them to establish traceability to requirements
D. Test documentation should always be understandable by all stakeholders
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following tasks and responsibilities do NOT belong to that of a test analyst in the
context of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
[K2] 1 credit
A. The test analyst should be able to use the reporting tools
B. The test analyst is responsible for supplying accurate information
C. The test analyst will contribute to the final report at the end of the testing
D. The test analyst should write final test reports objectively
Answer: D

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NO.8 As a test analyst you are involved in the early stages of an acceptance test for a Product Data
Management system. You are asked to write test designs and test cases based on use cases. An early
version of the system is also already available. It is a known fact that on the implementation level
many things will change (including the user-interface). The tests will be carried by end-users with
much domain knowledge who have also been involved in the project defining the user requirements
and reviewing documentation.
What is the BEST option regarding the level of detail and documentation required for test cases in
the project?
[K4] 3 credits
A. Detailed concrete test cases since many re-runs of the tests are expected
B. Logical test cases supported by concrete test cases to allow for traceability and enable future
changes
C. Concrete test cases only since the end-users have extensive domain knowledge
D. Logical test cases only since the end-user have extensive domain knowledge and many changes
are expected thus reducing testware maintenance effort
Answer: D

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NO.1 The quality leader most associated with the concept of robustness:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: E

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NO.2 The support for an important quality initiative was lacking in congress until Reagan ¯ s Seretary of
Commerce was killed in a horseback riding accident in 1987. That initiative was:
A. assigning National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) quality oversight duties
B. °consensus o f t he H ous ¡± pr o cl am a t i o n fo r De m i g¡¯ s 14 po i n t s C . nging National Bureau of
Standards to NIST.
D. authorizing the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) to join with the International Standards
Organization (ISO) to promulgate standards.
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.3 A team has been asked to reduce the cycle time for a process. The team decides to collect baseline
data. It will do this by:
A. seeking ideas for improvement from all stakeholders
B. researching cycle times for similar processes within the organization
C. obtaining accurate cycle times for the process as it currently runs
D. benchmarking similar processes outside the organization
Answer: C

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NO.4 This is an example of part of a:
A. QFD Matrix
B. Activity Network Diagram
C. Interrelationship Diagram
D. Affinity Diagram
Answer: A

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NO.5 George is an employee of Black, Inc. John is George ¯ s i n t e r na l cus t o m e r. W h i ch s t a t e m en t i s tr ue?
A. John is employed by Black, Inc.
B. John is employed by another company that supplies material to Black, Inc.
C. John is employed by a company that purchases material from black, Inc.
D. John is employed by another company that has a fiduciary agreement with Black, Inc.
E. John is employed by another company as an internal auditor.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In a series of linked processes and associated feedback loops the product or service flows ________
and the information flows ________.
A. rapidly, slower
B. downstream, upstream
C. evenly, digitally
D. sooner, later
E. to the customer, from the supplier
F. none of the above
Answer: B

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NO.7 The word °cha m p i o ¡± in t h e co nt e x t o f S ix Si gm a proj e cts refers to
A. the team that has had the most impact on the bottom line.
B. the person who has coordinated teams most effectively
C. the individual who has outpaced all others in six sigma knowledge
D. none of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 A quality leader who did extensive work with Japanese industry is:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Deming
D. Ohno
E. Taguchi
F. all of the above
G. none of the above
Answer: F

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NO.9 Customer segmentation refers to:
A. dividing a particular customer into parts that are more easily understood
B. grouping customers by one or more criteria
C. maintaining secure customer listings to minimize communication among them
D. eliminating or °cu tti ng o f ¡± cu st om ers w i th po o r cr e d it histor
Answer: B

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NO.10 Causes in a cause and effect diagram often include management, measurement systems, mother
nature and the four standard causes:
A. man, material, methods, machines
B. man, manufacturing, methods, material
C. marketing, methods, material, machines
D. man, material, millennium, machines
E. none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.11 Customer requirement #3 has a ______________ relationship with technical feature #3.
A. strong
B. moderate
C. weak
Answer: B

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NO.12 The quality leader responsible for the term Total Quality Management (TQM):
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: D

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NO.13 SWOT is an acronym for:
A. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
B. statistics without tables
C. sensory Weibull ordinal tools
D. success wields optimal teams
E. none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.14 The leader in the quality movement who recommended that organizations ° e li m i na t e nu m e ri ca l quo t as
for the work force and numerical goals for management. ± :
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: F

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NO.15 Perform a risk analysis to determine the expected profit or (loss) from a project which has four possible
disjoint outcomes: Outcome A shows a profit of $340,000 and has a probability of 0.25 Outcome B shows
a profit of $120,000 and has a probability of 0.40 Outcome C shows a loss of $40,000 and has a
probability of 0.10 Outcome D shows a profit of $100,000 and has a probability of 0.25 .?
A. $130,000
B. $520,000
C. $154,000
D. ($168,000)
E. none of the above
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: MSC-121
시험 이름: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
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NO.1 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.2 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.11 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000
BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE
802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3
MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.15 In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the
following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message
validation.
Answer: A

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NO.1 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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NO.3 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.4 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.6 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: EADA10
시험 이름: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Associate)
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NO.1 An ArcGIS user is calculating the mean slope per watershed using the Block Statistics geoprocessing
tool. Which ArcGIS Desktop extension should be enabled to use this tool?
A. Geostatistical Analyst
B. Spatial Analyst
C. Network Analyst
D. Schematics
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two actions can be taken to repair an.mxd file with broken data sources in ArcMap? (Choose
two)
A. right click the layer(s) in the Table of Contents and select Repair Data Source
B. repair the layer sources in the Map Document Properties
C. use the Repair Data Sources geoprocessing tool
D. use the Set Data Source option from Layer Properties
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 An ArcGIS user wants to share layer and attribute information in a map document with a colleague
who does NOT have ArcGIS Desktop
The ArcGIS user must export in which format in order for the colleague to view the information?
A. PDF
B. SVG
C. PNG
D. BMP
Answer: A

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NO.4 An ArcGIS user is analyzing an earthquake dataset to investigate the relationship between magnitude
and duration of incidents. The user displays magnitude on an x-axis and duration on a y-axis.
Which type of graph is the user employing?
A. box plot
B. histogram
C. scatter plot
D. bar
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two spatial query operators will select point features that are surrounded by polygon features?
(Select two)
A. Completely Contain
B. Are Completely Within
C. Share a Line Segment With
D. Intersect
E. Touch the Boundary Of
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An ArcGIS user creates a locator from a polyline feature class that exists in a feature dataset.
Where can the locator be saved?
A. in a feature dataset
B. in a Windows folder
C. in a topology dataset
D. in a feature class
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two factors should be considered when determining appropriateness of a dataset for a task?
(Choose two)
A. display colors
B. scale of data
C. geometry type
D. feature class names
E. configuration keywords
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data,
the other is spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single
feature class that is spatially and tabularly accurate
Which tool should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Field
B. Attribute Transfer
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Answer: A

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NO.9 An ArcGIS user is required to create a new feature class output of rivers of California Currently, the user
has a feature class of the USA rivers and a feature class of the California state boundary.
Which process would generate the necessary output?
A. Union tool with the USA rivers and California state boundary selected for input features
B. Clip tool with the USA rivers as input features and California state boundary as clip features
C. Union tool with the USA rivers as input and California state boundary as output feature class
D. Clip tool with the California state boundary as input features and USA rivers as clip features
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which limit is set for file geodatabase name length for ArcGIS Desktop.?
A. no limit
B. limited to 32 characters
C. limited to 255 characters
D. limited to the number of characters the operating system allows in a folder name
Answer: C

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NO.11 When should an ArcGIS user change the reference scale of an existing map annotation?
A. when the user adds a scale bar to the map layout
B. when the user brings data into the map that has a projected coordinate system
C. when the user creates a new feature linked annotation feature class and adds it to a new data frame for
editing
D. when the user uses the same map template to create a second map that contains data from a different
geographic area
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 The ArcGIS user works with a map document that contains a very detailed image that takes several
seconds to draw when panning.
Which action can the ArcGIS user take that will improve the performance when panning in ArcMap?
A. put the image layer in a group laver
B. set the reference scale on the image layer
C. put the image laver in a basemap layer
D. make the image layer selectable
Answer: D

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NO.13 An ArcGIS user is working within a map document and has realized that the Table of Contents is no
longer available. Which menu must the user choose to add the Table of Contents to his map document?
A. Insert menu
B. View menu
C. Edit menu
D. Windows menu
E. Add menu
Answer: A

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NO.14 When is a transformation required while projecting data?
A. when the input data source is a network
B. when the input and output geographic coordinate systems are different
C. when the input and output spatial references are different
D. when the input feature class has an unknown spatial reference
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which tool from the ArcGIS System toolbox allows the option to create a schema-only layer package
(Ipk) in ArcGIS Desktop?
A. Package Layer
B. Export Replica Schema
C. Package Map
D. Create Schematic Folder
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: S90-03A
시험 이름: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the Service
Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.
Answer: C

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NO.2 As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service compositions to
become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is false.? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also composed by other
service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be composed.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation and
SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms and
practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical (shortterm)
requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service-orientation is
required.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Each time our corporate development team makes a change to the service logic it is required to
publish a new version of the service contract. Our customers are complaining because their service
consumer programs become incompatible with new service contract versions and therefore no longer
work. Which of the following service-orientation principles is most likely to help us solve this on-going
problem? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Loose Coupling
D. Service Autonomy
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the initial
delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a constant
emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather than
strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure that may
introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 The decoupling of a service contract from the service's underlying implementation results in a(n)
__________________ in the service's level of abstraction because __________________ service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly couple to the
underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding
D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A

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NO.8 When applying the Service Loose Coupling design principle, we want to __________________ the
coupling of the service logic to the service contract because that allows the service contract to remain
__________________ from the service logic. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, decoupled
B. reduce, decoupled
C. increase, coupled
D. reduce, coupled
Answer: A

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NO.9 Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle: "Services are
supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively __________________ and
__________________." Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
Answer: B

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NO.10 A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract receives
a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract content to only what is
deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service's Service Level
Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be easily located by
those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly supports these
design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of applying the
Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and its
underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering "loose state" in support of
runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an agnostic
abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship between the service
contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details, whereas
Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in relation to the service
implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of the other
depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract principle is not
followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the purchase of
legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.14 The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or contract of a
service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction principle?
Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
Answer: D

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NO.1 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization and Logic Centralization patterns are being
applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice document from Service Consumer A
to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime performance of the service
composition?
A.The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied so that the invoice document sent by Service
Consumer A is transformed into an invoice document that is compliant with the XML Schema B used by
Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied again to ensure that the invoice
document sent by Service A is compliant with XML Schema A used by Service B.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.The Standardized Service Contract principle can be applied to the service contract of Service A so that
it is redesigned to use XML Schema A. This would make it capable of receiving the invoice document from
Service Consumer A and sending the invoice document to Service B without the need to further apply the
Data Model Transformation pattern.
D.None of the above.
Answer:C

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NO.2 The Client and Vendor services are agnostic services that are both currently part of multiple service
compositions. As a result, these services are sometimes subjected to concurrent access by multiple
service consumers.
The Client service is an entity service that primarily provides data access logic to a client database but
also provides some calculation logic associated with determining a client's credit rating. The Vendor
service is also an entity service that provides some data access logic but can also generate various
dynamic reports.
After reviewing historical statistics about the runtime activity of the two services, it was discovered that the
majority of concurrent runtime access is related to the processing of business rules. With the Client
service, it is the calculation logic that is frequently required and with the Vendor service it is the dynamic
reporting logic that needs to be accessed separately from the actual report generation.
Currently, due to the increasing amount of concurrent access by service consumers, the runtime
performance of both the Client and Vendor services has worsened and has therefore reduced their
effectiveness as service composition members. What steps can be taken to solve this problem without
introducing new services?
A.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied by extracting the business rule logic from the Client
and Vendor services and placing it into a new Rules service. This will naturally improve the runtime
performance of the Client and Vendor services because they will no longer be subjected to the high
concurrent access of service consumers that require access to the business rules logic.
B.The Redundant Implementation pattern can be applied to the Client and Vendor services, thereby
establishing duplicate implementations that can be accessed when a service reaches its runtime usage
threshold. The Intermediate Routing pattern can be further applied to provide load balancing logic that
can, at runtime, determine which of the redundant service implementations is the least busy for a given
service consumer request.
C.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied together with the Redundant Implementation pattern to
establish a scalable Rules service that is redundantly implemented and therefore capable of supporting
high concurrent access from many service consumers. The Service Abstraction principle can be further
applied to hide the implementation details of the Rules service.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of the XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization pattern is being applied and that the Logic
Centralization is not being applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice
document from Service Consumer A to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime
performance requirements of the service composition?
A.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to use XML Schema B so that the SOAP message it sends is
compliant with the service contract of Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can then be
applied to transform the SOAP message sent by Service A so that it conforms to the XML Schema A used
by Service B. The Standardized Service Contract principle must then be applied to Service B and Service
Consumer A so that the invoice XML document is optimized to avoid unnecessary validation.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to write the invoice document directly to the database. This
reduces performance requirements by avoiding the involvement of Service A and Service B. It further
supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle by ensuring that Service Consumer A hides
the details of the data access logic required to write to the database.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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